Was Shakespeare...Shakespeare?

So, this has been a very interesting topic for me in my English class. Did Shakespeare write all of the things that he was said to write? There is a theory that it is not Shakespeare who wrote them. The theory also states that a woman named Mary Sidney Herbert, whose family was very noble and so, she had the educational background, and the emotions to do it.

Her father and brother died at the period in which Shakespeare's plays indicated a drop in this area. This indicates that she might have written the play because her emotional status that she had. Also, the plays that Shakespeare was said to have very accurate depiction of things that nobles would know, that he wouldn't know, and also of women, and their feelings towards men, which would either indicate Shakespeare being homosexual or a woman.

So, how did all of this get pulled off? Well, Mary Sidney Herbert had a son, who would have been able to put Shakespeare's name in the credits due to his profession. He wouldn't want his mother to be the one who was credited for writing the plays because at this time, women were not supposed to be doing such things, and it could be very bad for their status as nobles. Shakespeare came across a great sum of money in this time period, and it is not known where or how he got it. Therefore, it is very plausible that he was paid to have his name on the paper. That way, the works could get published and not cause an uproar about the author.

I am not saying this is true. It is only a theory. However, I am curious to hear some of your theories on this subject too. Feel free to post them in the comments section.